User not logged in - login - register
Home Calendar Books School Tool Photo Gallery Message Boards Users Statistics Advertise Site Info
go to bottom | |
 Message Boards » » ECE 402 hwk Page [1]  
HUR
All American
17732 Posts
user info
edit post

How do you solve the following integral

Integral from(-infinity to infinity) of (sinc(t)*impulse(t)*dt)

i know the integral only has a value at time=0 b.c of the impulse but how do i solve it. Is the result 0?

5/28/2007 11:23:21 PM

virga
All American
2019 Posts
user info
edit post

a dirac delta has "infinite" amplitude, but it's integral is unity.

5/29/2007 1:27:16 AM

mathman
All American
1631 Posts
user info
edit post

I don't know much about sinc(t) but if impluse is the dirac delta, and I think it is, then the answer is

sinc(0)

which if sinc(0) is like sin(0) or sinh(0) then yeah the answer be zero.

Is sinc(x) = Int(sin(u),u,0,x) ?

If so then the Int is over point and is by definition zero here.

[Edited on May 29, 2007 at 2:08 PM. Reason : .]

5/29/2007 1:50:06 PM

HUR
All American
17732 Posts
user info
edit post

sinc(0) is one which i think is the answer

5/29/2007 4:22:30 PM

 Message Boards » Study Hall » ECE 402 hwk Page [1]  
go to top | |
Admin Options : move topic | lock topic

© 2024 by The Wolf Web - All Rights Reserved.
The material located at this site is not endorsed, sponsored or provided by or on behalf of North Carolina State University.
Powered by CrazyWeb v2.39 - our disclaimer.