ssjamind All American 30102 Posts user info edit post |
Whats the opposite/inverse of the point of inflection of a curve. Qualitatively it can be called a "point of diminishing returns", or described as the point where the slope of the curve ceases to increase at a previously sustained rate. What is the mathematical representation of this point?
thanks. 12/1/2005 10:28:48 AM |
fantastic50 All American 568 Posts user info edit post |
That sounds like you are describing an inflection point, that is the boundary between a curve that is concave up and one that is concave down. 12/1/2005 1:14:07 PM |
ssjamind All American 30102 Posts user info edit post |
but whether it is up or down its still called an "inflection point"? 12/1/2005 1:35:58 PM |
Aficionado Suspended 22518 Posts user info edit post |
yea
it is just where the second derivative is equal to zero 12/1/2005 1:45:32 PM |
ssjamind All American 30102 Posts user info edit post |
ok thanks 12/1/2005 4:44:08 PM |
Cabbage All American 2086 Posts user info edit post |
This might be obvious, I don't know, but it's not quite enough to say that inflection points are where the second derivative is zero--The second derivative also needs to change signs across that point.
For example, f(x)=x^4 has second derivative zero at x=0, but this is not an infection point since the function is concave up everywhere (the second derivative is never negative). 12/1/2005 5:29:10 PM |
qntmfred retired 40723 Posts user info edit post |
so the opposite would be where the 2nd deriv = infiniti? 12/1/2005 9:42:18 PM |
mathman All American 1631 Posts user info edit post |
A line Y=mx+b has y''=0 everywhere but is neither concave up or down anywhere. Or is it both... hmm... 12/1/2005 10:17:33 PM |
natchela Veteran 407 Posts user info edit post |
for the 2nd derivative rule to work, it has to be a newly defined zero--as in, if the first derivative is also zero at that point, that point can't also be a point of inflection 12/2/2005 12:38:22 PM |
clalias All American 1580 Posts user info edit post |
^wrong. Cabbage had it right--end of thread. 12/2/2005 4:54:30 PM |
mathman All American 1631 Posts user info edit post |
if that was the end then how are you reading this? 12/2/2005 6:00:41 PM |
natchela Veteran 407 Posts user info edit post |
^^no, it isn't wrong.
Cabbage isn't wrong either. 12/4/2005 12:04:45 PM |
mathman All American 1631 Posts user info edit post |
^ and ^^^^ what about f(x)=x^3 ? Notice that
f ' (x) = 3x^2 f '' (x) = 6x
Clearly f ' (0) = 0 and (0,0) is a point of inflection since f '' (x) < 0 when x < 0 and f '' (x) > 0 when x > 0. So here is an example of an inflection point which is not a newly defined zero. Your statement needs some adjustment. 12/4/2005 12:32:58 PM |
clalias All American 1580 Posts user info edit post |
^^ . I hope you're not a math major, or anything science related. And as mathman pointed out, the counter example to your claim is trivial. I thought you would think about it after I said you were wrong.
Quote : | "Your statement needs some adjustment." |
that's an understatement.12/4/2005 2:35:35 PM |